Monday, August 29, 2005 2:21 PM

Invitational Hands - 1NT Response

PITBULLS:

What is a 1NT response to a minor ? I play it as a “semi-descriptive” obstructionist bid. 1NT is surprisingly pre-emptive as the enemy overcalls must start at the 2 level and their doubles are quite ambiguous. I play a jump raise response in either minor as a limit raise. This means there is no bid for a normal Goren response in a minor 6-8 HCP and a fit in partners minor. I do not play a jump raise in a minor as pre-emptive so there is no bid for that hand either . A 1NT response to a minor is a “catch all” for all those hand types. Responding 1NT with a major is rare enough to be discounted when discussing theory. If no major , a 1NT response “must” hold a minor due to the law of 13 cards. The worst case scenario is 7 cards in the minors with a 3-3-4-3 . Other balanced distributions with a 1NT response are loaded in the minors . 2-3-4-4 , 2-3-5-3 , 2-3-2-6 and 2-2-4-5 . The semi-balanced distribution of 1-3-5-4 brings a 1NT response from time to time.

What are the best ways for opener to invite after a 1NT response ? The 2NT bid should not exist as an invite. Playing strong NT’s the 15-17 HCP hands have already been opened 1NT. A 2NT bid in my opinion should be all the 18-19 HCP hands period. Since 1NT may be an “excuse me” bid to obstruct the opponents , we need an out after a 2NT raise. 3 minor should be non forcing in these auctions and let 18 HCP opposite 6 HCP play in a partial unless you fit the minor well. Otherwise 2NT is always a game force when partner has responded 1NT to a minor.

OK what should the invitational hands be ? Reversing with 15-17 and jump raises as invitational bids are horrible ways to invite !! The reverse maps out the lead to the opponents at just the wrong time when your side as only near game values. If you are broadcasting the opening lead for the opponents, you should have game forcing values trying for a slam where the lead will not hurt you. The jump raise is a silly bid as invitational as if your six card suit with 16-18 HCP is a source of tricks , bid 3NT. If the suit is weak , why go to the 3 level with your 16 HCP when partner might not fit your weak suit and go for a minus. Let the 1NT bidder decide what action to take when you hold those hands.

The solution is to have a rebid of your minor as the only invitational bid after a 1NT response. This bid is done on three main hand types. The 5-4-3-1 or invitational reverses as I call them. The 6 card minor where the suit is not a source of tricks and the 5-4-2-2 hands or the “flat reverses” under 18-19 HCP. This hand partner includes 5-4 in the minors with a 5-4-2-2 and invitational values. Partner with 8-10 HCP will simply bid 3NT or 2NT and the opponents are leading blind without too much information to guide them. The principle of concealment and tight games are a good mix.

With all invitational bids covered by a simple rebid of your minor , how do you describe the weak distributional one suited openers ? The weak balanced openers are described with a pass except in one instance. Redefine jump rebids in your opening minor as weak and distributional !! As discussed previously , a 1NT response is stacked in the minors. This means the opponents have the majors and will out bid you. You will not buy the hand in 2♣ or 2♦ after a 1NT response holding a weak distributional hand. Play your jump rebids as weak ! I do not play a weak 2♦ opener. This is an ideal way to describe those hands after opening 1♦ say on Kxx x AKJxxx xxx and partner responding 1NT.

The strong reverses and jump shift reverses ( 10-14 HCP) still exist. The strong jump shift into clubs still exist. Ax x AKxxx AKxxx and you open 1♦. Partner bids 1NT and you can bid 3♣ as a Goren strong jump shift. AKxx x AKxxx Axx and you open 1♦ and partner bids 1NT and you make a normal reverse to 2♠.

The 1NT response to a minor is not handled very well in standard bidding. This is one area that should be fixed by an established partnership.